| Course | MT483 Investments |
|---|---|
| Unit | Unit 4 |
| Paper type | Diversification analysis |
| Length | About 920 words, 6 pages double-spaced |
| Format | APA 7 student paper |
| School | Purdue University Global |
| Program | BS in Business Administration |
| Updated | October 2026 |
Free sample paper for MT483 Unit 4
When the Paycheck and the Portfolio Share an Employer: An MT483 Unit 4 Diversification Analysis
[Student Name]
Purdue University Global
MT483: Investments
Unit 4 Diversification Analysis
[Instructor Name]
[Date]
Kevin Brooks, his employer and every volatility and correlation figure are composite; the sources cited are real.
The Position as Held
Kevin Brooks, a composite 34-year-old machinist, holds $85,000 in his employer's 401(k) plan: $51,000 in his employer's own stock and $34,000 in an S&P 500 index fund. That is 60 percent in one company, the same company that pays his wages. The analysis asks what diversification would do to the risk of this mix, and it uses three labeled assumptions. The employer stock's annual volatility is 34 percent, the index fund's 16 percent and an intermediate bond fund's 5.5 percent. The employer stock's correlation with the index fund is 0.55 and with the bond fund 0.10. These are composite inputs in the range typical of a mid-size industrial company, and the conclusions are tested against changes in correlation below.
Where Correlation Enters
Portfolio variance for Kevin's pair has three parts. The employer stock contributes its weight squared times its own variance; the index fund contributes the same for itself; and a cross term, where the two holdings interact, multiplies 2 by each weight, by 0.55 and by 34 and 16. The first two terms are each asset's own risk, scaled down by its weight. The cross term is where the assets interact. With a correlation of 1 it adds enough to make portfolio volatility equal the weighted average; with anything less, it adds less.
At Kevin's current mix the employer stock's part is 0.36 multiplied by 1,156, which is 416.16. The index fund's part is 0.16 multiplied by 256, which is 40.96. The cross term doubles 0.6 by 0.4 by 0.55 by 34 by 16 and comes to 143.62. Their sum is 600.74, and its square root is 24.51 percent. A simple weighted average of the two volatilities would be 26.8 percent, so the imperfect correlation already removes 2.3 points of risk.
The cross term is the only place where diversification happens, and it shrinks as correlation falls.
Two Partners, Stepped Down
Reducing the employer stock in steps of 20 points, and putting the difference into each partner in turn, gives the following volatilities.
1. 60 percent employer stock: 24.51 with the index fund, 20.74 with the bond fund.
2. 40 percent: 20.51 with the index fund, 14.31 with the bond fund.
3. 20 percent: 17.49 with the index fund, 8.46 with the bond fund.
4. 0 percent: 16.00 with the index fund, 5.50 with the bond fund.
The bond fund cuts risk faster at every step, for two reasons. Its own volatility is far lower, and its correlation with the employer stock is close to zero, so the cross term nearly disappears. The index fund partner helps less because it moves with the employer stock about half the time. Even so, moving from 60 to 20 percent employer stock with the index fund partner removes seven points of volatility, more than a quarter of the starting risk, without adding any bonds.
Correlation Alone, Moved
To isolate correlation, the panel holds a half-and-half mix of the employer stock and a 16 percent volatility partner and changes only the correlation between them. At 0.9 the portfolio's volatility is 24.45 percent; at 0.7 it is 23.31; at 0.5, 22.11; at 0.3, 20.85; and at 0.1, 19.50. Nothing about either asset changed except how they move together, yet risk fell by almost five points. Markowitz (1952) made this point the foundation of portfolio selection: the risk of a portfolio depends on the covariances among its holdings, not only on each holding's own risk. Correlations also change over time and often rise in sell-offs, so the low-correlation rows should be read as the more optimistic end of the range.
What a Bad Year Costs
Under a normal approximation, with an assumed mean return of 8 percent, a one-in-twenty bad year is 1.645 standard deviations below the mean. At Kevin's 24.51 percent volatility that is a return of about minus 32.3 percent, or a loss of about $27,471 on $85,000. At 20 percent employer stock with the index fund partner, the same calculation gives about minus 20.8 percent, or $17,655. Returns have fatter tails than the normal curve, so these figures understate the worst cases, but they translate volatility into a sum Kevin can picture.
Risk the Market Does Not Explain
With a correlation of 0.55, the share of the employer stock's variance that moves with the market is 0.55 squared, about 30 percent. The other 70 percent is specific to the company: its contracts, its managers, its competitors. That company-specific risk is the part diversification removes, and standard theory says it earns no extra expected return, because investors can shed it cheaply (Bodie et al., 2024).
Kevin's case adds a second exposure. His wages depend on the same company, so a bad year for the business could cut both his paycheck and his savings at once. Benartzi (2001) showed that plan members put more of their new contributions into their employer's shares when those shares had done well over the prior ten years, and that these heavier allocations did not predict how the shares performed afterward. The analysis does not tell Kevin what to sell; it shows that the 60 percent holding concentrates his risk in the one place where he is already most exposed.
References
Benartzi, S. (2001). Excessive extrapolation and the allocation of 401(k) accounts to company stock. The Journal of Finance, 56(5), 1747-1764. https://doi.org/10.1111/0022-1082.00388
Bodie, Z., Kane, A., & Marcus, A. J. (2024). Investments (13th ed.). McGraw Hill.
Markowitz, H. (1952). Portfolio selection. The Journal of Finance, 7(1), 77-91. https://doi.org/10.1111/j.1540-6261.1952.tb01525.x
Reading the MT 483 Unit 4 instructions
Unit 4 in MT483 commonly asks you to combine two or more assets and show how portfolio volatility changes with weights and correlation. Start from a stated position, either one given in the prompt or a composite you describe. List the volatility and correlation assumptions and label where they came from. Write the two-asset variance formula once and substitute your numbers in full, so the cross term is visible. Then vary the weights and, separately, the correlation, and report what happens. The strongest analyses also discuss risk that volatility alone misses, such as concentration in one company or exposure shared with the investor's job. Support claims about investor behavior with a study, and keep the conclusion to what the numbers show rather than personal advice.
How this MT483 Unit 4 example is built
Kevin's $51,000 in employer stock and $34,000 in an index fund are set out with three labeled volatility figures and two correlations. The variance formula follows, its three terms computed for the 60 percent mix as 416.16, 40.96 and 143.62. A highlighted line marks the cross term as the place diversification works. A four step list then lowers the employer weight from 60 percent to zero against each partner, and the bond fund cuts risk faster at every step. The correlation panel holds a half and half mix and moves correlation from 0.9 to 0.1. A one in twenty bad year is costed at about $27,471 now and $17,655 at the reduced weight. The last section uses Benartzi's 2001 study on how employees load 401(k) accounts with company stock.
MT483 Unit 4 rubric: what earns full points
Graders in this unit look first at the cross term, because averaging two volatilities overstates risk and skips the calculation the assignment exists to teach. Full substitution of one case earns credit for transparency; the remaining cases can be listed. Correlation assumptions without a label or a period lose points, and so does a sensitivity check that moves several inputs at once. Including a low-correlation partner, not only a second stock fund, shows the full effect of diversification. Marks also go to analysis beyond the formula: separating market risk from company-specific risk, and recognizing that a paycheck from the same employer compounds the exposure. Behavioral evidence should carry author and year in APA style. Conclusions framed for the composite investor read as analysis rather than a recommendation to a classmate.
Common MT483 Unit 4 mistakes, and how to avoid them
The single most frequent slip is computing portfolio risk as a weighted average, which produces a number that looks plausible and is wrong. Another is changing weights and correlation together, so the reader cannot tell which caused the drop. Some analyses treat correlation as permanent, though it tends to rise during sell-offs; one sentence acknowledging that improves the paper. Students also overlook human capital, describing the employer stock as just another holding. Converting volatility into a dollar loss for a bad year makes the result concrete, but say which distribution was assumed. Before submitting, substitute one mix by hand into the formula, confirm that the bond partner lowers risk more than the stock partner, and check each assumption has its label beside it.
Get an MT483 Unit 4 example written to your instructions
Unit 4 prompts may supply two assets and a correlation, or ask for an investor's actual holdings. Whatever yours specifies, include it with your instructor's rubric, and the first MT483 analysis is prepared free within 24-48h: the cross term shown, partners compared and every assumption labeled, formatted as your instructor directs. The paper above is an original model document written by our desk, not a submitted student paper and not an official Purdue University Global document.
More MT483 papers and BS in Business Administration samples
- MT483 Unit 1: Windfall Ranking Board Post
- MT483 Unit 2: Order Types and Margin Exercise
- MT483 Unit 3: S&P 500 Risk and Return Calculation
- MT483 Unit 5: Fund Comparison Report
- MT483 Unit 6: Seminar Reflection
- MT483 Unit 7: Bond Pricing Exercise
- MT483 Unit 8: Behavioral Bias Analysis
- MT483 Unit 9: Trade Journal
- MT483 Unit 10: Investment Policy Proposal
- MT482 Unit 4: Liquidity and Solvency Review
- MT481 Unit 4: FOMC Monetary Policy Brief
- MT480 Unit 4: Dividend Model Stock Valuation
- MT475 Unit 4: P Chart Control Chart Analysis
MT483 Unit 4 questions, answered
Where do correlation figures come from?
Either from the prompt or from historical returns you compute, such as five years of monthly data for each asset. Name the period and source, and note that correlations shift over time and often rise in sell-offs. A short sensitivity panel, like the one here, shows how much the conclusion depends on the figure you chose.
Why include the employee's salary in a diversification analysis?
Because future earnings are a large asset for a working investor, and they are exposed to the employer's fortunes. Holding company stock adds to that exposure instead of offsetting it. The analysis does not need to value human capital precisely; noting that the portfolio and the paycheck share one source of risk is normally sufficient here.
Does diversification reduce returns?
Not necessarily in expectation, though it removes the chance of the outsized gain a single stock can deliver. Company-specific risk is not rewarded with higher expected return in the standard theory, because investors can remove it cheaply. Your analysis can say that diversifying gives up the lottery ticket while cutting risk the market does not pay anyone to hold.
Where can I find a free MT483 Unit 4 sample paper?
The complete MT483 Unit 4 analysis appears on this page, blending a composite 60 percent employer stock position with an index fund and a bond fund and costing a bad year in dollars.
Why does the bond fund lower risk faster than the index fund in the MT483 Unit 4 sample?
Its own volatility is far lower and its assumed correlation with the employer stock is only 0.10, so the cross term nearly disappears.